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" have found favor with YHVH!"
the Virgin Birth
by haRold Smith
a citizen of the Commonwealth
(Ephesians 2:12)

"All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: 'Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel (which means, YHVH with us). Matthew 1:22-23

With this text Matthew is paraphrasing Isaiah 7:14 (click on highlighted words to view content). But the English version that is being quoted is a mistranslation of a mistranslation. Most are not aware that what they consider the Hebrew scriptures (OT) in their bible do not come from the original Hebrew but from an early translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek called the Septuagint. The original Hebrew text of Isaiah 7:14 is not about a virgin. The Hebrew word betula is used 32 times in the Tanakh (OT) as a specific word for "virgin". So, the Hebrew word used to describe the woman in Isaiah 7:14, almah, is a word that means "young woman." But then the Septuagint took the Hebrew almah and rendered it as the Greek parthenos, which means "virgin." This inadvertent shift from "young woman" to "virgin" is typical of the Septuagint and it occurs elsewhere, too. For instance, the Hebrew text of Genesis 24:16 describes Rebecca as a "young woman [who was] a virgin" (using na'arah, another Hebrew word for "young woman"). But the Greek in the Septuagint changes that into "a virgin [who was] a virgin." These errors are not surprising, because the Septuagint translators tended not to focus as closely on individual words as some modern readers might like. In most contexts, calling a "young woman" a "virgin" in the days of the Septuagint would be only a minor translation mistake, hardly even noteworthy, because most young women were virgins and most female virgins were young women. In modern terms, however, it would be like mixing up "high schooler" and "teenager" - imprecise perhaps, but good enough for most purposes. But in this situation, obviously, turning a young woman into a virgin rises to the level of a serious gaffe. And that's when the young woman is pregnant. This is how the Septuagint, through both lack of precision and an understanding of Hebrew culture turned an ordinary birth into a virgin birth. Subsequent translations into English only exacerbated the error. Some Hebrew translations actually render "Virgin Conception" rather than "Virgin Birth." That is, frankly, far more probable, as virgin conception is not an uncommon occurrence.

Matthew 1:1-15 establishes the legitimacy of Yeshua's claim to be the rightful heir to the throne of David. The Hebrew perspective considers all male descendants to be sons (sons, grandsons, great-grandsons, great-great-grandsons, etc.). The term "virgin" simply establishes the fact that the Messiah would be the First Born Son or Eldest Son and thus the lawful contender to the throne of David because it is only possible for a first born child to be conceived from a virgin. In other words, Mary became pregnant with the Messiah and lost her virginity at the exact same time (her FIRST TIME), thus confirming the Messiah's physical birth (a physical to spiritual parallel) as a FIRST BORN SON (physical for Mary and Joseph, but spiritual for YHVH). Regardless of all of this, and even IF Joseph's and King David's seed was supernaturally placed into the virgin womb of Mary, Mary's virginity would still only prove that the Messiah was without a doubt the First Born or Eldest Son of Mary, and (IF supernaturally conceived) thus not a true physical seed of Abraham. (Spiritual? Yes! Physical? No!). Here is where we must first set the stage from which to view these words from the Hebraic perspective they were written in and the culture surrounding them (see Hebrew Betrothal Customs).

"And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son... And Mary said to the angel, 'How will this be, since I am a virgin?' And the angel answered her, 'the spirit of holiness will come upon you and the power of the Most High will OVERSHADOW you; therefore the child to be born WILL BE called holy - the Son of God'." Luke 1:31-35

The Greek word translated as the English OVERSHADOW is episkiazo. which means "to envelope in a cloud", drawing from usage in the Tanakh (OT) to describe the holy influence exerted upon those who come under the cloud of the the Present Presence. In fact, this Greek word is only used five times in the Messianic Writings. Three of those times Matthew 17:5, Mark 9:7 and Luke 9:34 describe what happened at what has come to be known as the "Mount of Transfiguration". While all of those standing in that cloud were "righteously influenced" by that event - nobody got pregnant. Note also that the angel said this child WILL BE called (NOT is already called the son of YEHOVEH) the Son of the Most High.

"Jacob became the father of Joseph, [who was] the husband of Mary, from whom [Joseph & Mary] was BORN Yeshua, who is called Messiah. So all the [male] generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; from David to the exile to Babylon fourteen generations; and from the carrying away to Babylon to the Messiah, fourteen generations [of males]. Now the birth of Messiah Yeshua was like this; because when his mother, Mary had been ESPOUSED to Joseph, BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER, she was found pregnant by the (spiritual influence of) the spirit of holiness (that resided within her). And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly. But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of YHVH appeared to him in a dream, saying, 'Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife (to cohabitate with her), for that which is conceived in her is from the spirit of holiness (residing in her)'... When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife (began to cohabitate with her), BUT KNEW HER NOT, until she had given birth to a son. And he called His name YESHUA." Matthew 1:16-25

The Greek word translated as the English BORN is gennao which means, "procreated or begotten as a property of the father or sire" - Joseph, as stated. The Greek word translated as the English ESPOUSED is mnesteno meaning, "promised wife". The Greek word translated as the English BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER is sunerchomai and means, "live together on a daily basis or cohabitate". It should be clearly understood that pregnant by the spirit of holiness does NOT mean that the spirit of holiness made her pregnant. As seen in the article, Agreement, it means the spirit of holiness she had already cultivated within INFLUENCED Mary to get pregnant by Joseph prior to their permanent cohabitation. Thus, she allowed herself to get pregnant (by consummating her marriage to Joseph before the scheduled date of their permanent cohabitation) because of the holy and righteous nature (spiritual influence) of the situation. She was not only filled mentally and emotionally by YHVH's holy spirit of love for the Eternal Himself; but also, for her HUSBAND, Joseph; and, also, her yet to be conceived son, Yeshua (the promised Messiah and rightful heir to the throne of David). Traditional Christianity would have us to believe that all premarital sex is a sin, but YHVH's inspired word clearly reveals that a man and his virgin have not sinned (1Corinthians 7:9, see what is Scriptural Marriage for more explanation). The Greek word translated as the English KNEW HER NOT is ginosko which actually means "acquainted (or understood) it not" - without the pronoun "her". In John 8:27, John 10:6 and John 12:16, the Greek word gonosko is translated as "understood". It seems that the translators had a hidden bias and agenda, as there is a huge difference between the implication of "he knew her not" and "he understood it not". Additionally her or it or their was not specified until the biased English translations came out. As directed by the angel, Joseph named their son YESHUA - not "Jesus".

One Flesh
One Flesh
Did Mary and Joseph have full intercourse prior to their cohabitation? Absolutely, as it was not an uncommon practice in those days for ENGAGED COUPLES because the only difference between a promised marriage and actual marriage was permanent "cohabitation." Joseph and Mary were not only married in their own opinion, but also, in YHVH's opinion. They loved each other with a holy spirit of love and, eventually, they cohabitated as a married couple. The source of Joseph's confusion was by agreeing to become pregnant before they were publicly cohabitating, they were going against the accepted norms of their culture. That was what Joseph was contemplating in wanting to put her away privately so as to not bring unwanted attention to their situation and, thus, the need for intervention by the angel to reinforce their decision. Therefore, they did not sin and their relationship remained righteous. Additionally, Joseph had to be the true PHYSICAL FATHER (sire) of Yeshua the Messiah in order for the verses of Matthew 1:1-15 to have any TRUE purpose in being mentioned at all.

We already know from research that Christianity has misinterpreted the identity of the spirit of holiness (an attitude of cultivating righteousness), so it only makes sense that they misinterpreted this too, since the spirit of holiness is involved in MARY'S DECISION to get pregnant. The Universal Roman Church and, subsequently, Protestant Catholics actually want mankind to believe in the pagan concept of the Trinity to further a pre-conceived agenda. The title of "Holy Virgin" was the title of the harlot-priestesses of Ishtar (and) Asherah. It is this TITLE (not a pure form virgin reality) that was borrowed by the Greco-Roman church. The pagan title of "Holy Virgins" did not mean physical virginity at all; it meant simply "unmarried" (no husband). The function of these so called "Holy Virgins" was to dispense the Mother's (Ishtar's/Asterah's) grace through sexual worship; to heal; to prophesy; to perform sacred dances; to wail for the dead; and to become "Brides of god." The Hebrews called the children of these unmarried harlot priestesses "bathur", which meant literally "Virgin Born." The rest of the Hellenic pagan world had no language equivalent to the bizarre rituals of Ishtar, and mistranslated and misunderstood the literal Hebrew's terminology of "bathur" as "parthenioi", also "virgin born" but in the sense of the physical (not spiritual) virginity (James Still, Origins of the Virgin Birth Myth). Only pagans believe that humans and gods or demigods have children from sex or a magical implantation of the seed of Abraham. This pagan concept is pure rubbish based on superstition and ignorance. Why would YHVH pervert his own promise to Abraham with a scam or misrepresentation when He didn't need to. Joseph was right there and Mary was already his by promise. Would righteous YHVH perform such an unrighteous act against both Mary and Joseph? Absolutely Not! Many people take the above verses to buttress their viewpoint that Mary was somehow "impregnated" by YHVH to produce the child Yeshua. Let's consider this for a moment. If Mary was married when YHVH "impregnated" her, He would have committed adultery, which is a violation of the eighth commandment. Similarly, if she was only engaged/betrothed when YHVH "impregnated" her, then He would have also committed adultery. Needless to say, YHVH will NEVER commit adultery - or break any other of His own Commandments! YHVH never does anything to his disciples, prophets, teachers, servants, etc. without first asking them if they would do it; how much more so in the case of "impregnating" someone? YHVH simply does not force Himself upon people! The Messianic Writings (NT) clearly state that Yeshua was "born under the law", which is an unshakable indication that Yeshua was NOT conceived through either fornication or adultery.

"...which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the holy scriptures concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh and was declared to be the Son of YHVH in power according to the spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead,
Yeshua haMashiach." Romans 1:2-4

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