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"...you have found favor with YaHoVeH!"
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The Birth Series
the Virgin Birth
by haRold Smith
a citizen of the Commonwealth (Ephesians 2:19)
"All this took place to fulfill what YaHoVeH had spoken by the prophet:
'Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son,
and they shall call his name Immanuel (which means, YaHoVeH with us)." Matthew 1:22-23
With this text Matthew is paraphrasing
Isaiah 7:14 (click on highlighted words to view content).
But the English version that is being quoted is a mistranslation of a mistranslation. Most are not aware that what they consider the Hebrew scriptures (renamed OT) in their bible do not come from the original Hebrew but from an early translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek called the Septuagint. The original Hebrew text of Isaiah 7:14 is not about a virgin. The Hebrew word
betula
is used 32 times in the Tanakh (OT) as a specific word for "virgin". So, the Hebrew word used to describe the woman in Isaiah 7:14,
almah,
is a word that means "young woman." But then the Septuagint took the Hebrew almah and rendered it as the Greek
parthenos,
which means "virgin." This inadvertent shift from "young woman" to "virgin" is typical of the Septuagint and it occurs elsewhere, too. For instance, the Hebrew text of
Genesis 24:16
describes Rebecca as a "young woman [who was] a virgin" (using na'arah, another Hebrew word for "young woman"). But the Greek in
the Septuagint
changes that into "a virgin [who was] a virgin." These errors are not surprising, because the Septuagint translators tended not to focus as closely on individual words as some modern readers might like. In most contexts, calling a "young woman" a "virgin" in the days of the Septuagint would be only a minor translation mistake, hardly even noteworthy, because most young women were virgins and most female virgins were young women. In modern terms, however, it would be like mixing up "high schooler" and "teenager" - imprecise perhaps, but good enough for most purposes. But in this situation, obviously, turning a young woman into a virgin rises to the level of a serious gaffe. And that's when the young woman is pregnant. This is how the Septuagint, through both lack of precision and an understanding of Hebrew culture turned an ordinary birth into a virgin birth. Subsequent translations into English only exacerbated the error. Some Hebrew translations actually render
"Virgin Conception"
rather than "Virgin Birth." That is, frankly, far more probable, as virgin conception is not an uncommon occurrence.
Matthew 1:1-15
establishes the legitimacy of Yeshua's claim to be the rightful heir to the throne of David. The Hebrew perspective considers all male descendants to be sons (sons, grandsons, great-grandsons, great-great-grandsons, etc.). The term "virgin" simply establishes the fact that the Messiah would be the
First Born Son or Eldest Son
and thus the lawful contender to the throne of David because it is only possible for a firstborn child to be conceived from a virgin. In other words, Mary became pregnant with the Messiah and lost her virginity at the exact same time (her FIRST TIME), thus confirming the Messiah's physical birth. Even IF Joseph's and King David's seed was supernaturally placed into the virgin womb of Mary, Mary's virginity would still only prove that the Messiah was without a doubt the First Born or Eldest Son of Mary - but IF supernaturally conceived would simply show this child was not a true physical seed of Abraham. Here is where we must first set the stage from which to view these words from the Hebraic perspective they were written in and the culture surrounding them
(see Hebrew Betrothal Customs).
"And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son... And Mary said to the angel, 'How will this be, since I am a virgin?' And the angel answered her, 'the Spirit of YaHoVeH will come upon you and the power of the Most High will
OVERSHADOW
you; therefore the child to be born
WILL BE
called holy - the Son of YaHoVeH'." Luke 1:31-35
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The Greek word translated as the English OVERSHADOW is
episkiazo,
which means "to envelope in a cloud", drawing from usage in the Tanakh (renamed OT) to describe the holy influence exerted upon those who come under the cloud of the
Present Presence.
In fact, this Greek word is only used five times in the Messianic Writings. Three of those times
Matthew 17:5,
Mark 9:7
and Luke 9:34
describe what happened at what has come to be known as the "Mount of Transfiguration". While all of those standing in that cloud were "righteously influenced" by that event - nobody got pregnant. Note also that the angel said this child WILL BE called (NOT is already called) the Son of the Most High. This is because, as yet, the child has not behaviorally
Cultivated Virtue
in his life. Philippians 2:7-8
tells us that Yeshua was born in human form, in the likeness of men and
Hebrews 4:15
tells us that, being in the likeness of men, was tempted in every way, just as we are - yet, without
choosing to sin.
That virtue was purposefully cultivated
to show how the Words of YaHoVeH can set anyone apart for His Purpose - the very definition of what it means to be holy influenced
(1Peter 1:16
quoting Leviticus 19:2).
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"Jacob became the father of Joseph, [who was]
the husband of Mary,
from whom [Joseph & Mary] was
BORN
Yeshua, who is called Messiah. So all the [male] generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; from David to the exile to Babylon fourteen generations; and from the carrying away to Babylon to the Messiah, fourteen generations [of males]. Now the birth of Messiah Yeshua was like this; because when his mother, Mary had been
ESPOUSED
to Joseph, BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER,
she was found pregnant by the (spiritual influence of) the holiness of spirit (that resided within her). And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly. But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of YaHoVeH appeared to him in a dream, saying, 'Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife (to cohabitate with her), for that which is conceived in her is from the holiness of spirit (residing in her)'... When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife (began to cohabitate with her),
BUT KNEW HER NOT,
until she had given birth to a son. And he called His name YESHUA." Matthew 1:16-25
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The Greek word translated as the English BORN is
gennao
which means, "procreated or begotten as a property of the father or sire" - Joseph, as stated. The Greek word translated as the English ESPOUSED is
mnesteno
meaning, "promised wife". The Greek word translated as the English BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER is
sunerchomai
and means, "live together on a daily basis or cohabitate". It should be clearly understood that pregnant by
the holiness of spirit
does NOT mean that the holiness of spirit made her pregnant. As seen in the article,
Agreement,
it means the holiness of spirit she had already cultivated within her INFLUENCED Mary to get pregnant by Joseph prior to their permanent cohabitation. Thus, she allowed herself to get pregnant (by consummating her marriage to Joseph before the scheduled date of their permanent cohabitation) because of the holy and righteous nature (spiritual influence) of the situation. She was not only filled mentally and emotionally by YaHoVeH's Spirit of love for the Eternal Himself; but also, for her
HUSBAND,
Joseph; and, also, her conceived but yet to be birthed son, Yeshua (the promised Messiah and rightful heir to the throne of David). Traditional Christianity would have us to believe that all premarital sex is a sin, but YaHoVeH's inspired word clearly reveals that a man and his virgin have not sinned
(1Corinthians 7:9,
see what is Scriptural Marriage for more explanation).
The Greek single word translated as the English phrase KNEW HER NOT is
ginosko
which actually means "acquainted (or understood) it not" - without the pronoun "her". In
John 8:27,
John 10:6
and John 12:16,
this same Greek word ginosko is translated as "understood". It seems that the translators had a bias toward an agenda of
tradition
as there is a huge difference between the implication of "he knew her not" and
"he understood it not".
Additionally, the words "her" or "their" was not specified until the biased English translations. As directed by the angel, Joseph named their son
YESHUA
- not "Jesus".
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One Flesh
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Did Mary and Joseph have full intercourse prior to their cohabitation? Absolutely, as it was not an uncommon practice in those days for
ENGAGED COUPLES
because the only difference between a promised marriage and actual marriage was permanent "cohabitation." Joseph and Mary were not only married in their own opinion, but also, in YaHoVeH's opinion. They loved each other with a holy, spirit of love and, eventually, they cohabitated as a married couple. The source of Joseph's confusion was by agreeing to become pregnant before they were publicly cohabitating, they were going against the accepted norms of their culture. That was what Joseph was contemplating in wanting to put her away privately so as to not bring unwanted attention to their situation and, thus, the need for intervention by the angel to reinforce their decision. Therefore,
they did not sin
and their relationship remained righteous. Additionally, Joseph had to be the true PHYSICAL FATHER (sire) of Yeshua the Messiah in order for the verses of Matthew 1:1-15 to have any TRUE purpose in being mentioned at all.
We already know from research that Christianity has misinterpreted the identity of the holiness of spirit (an attitude of
cultivating righteousness),
so it only makes sense that they misinterpreted this too, since the holiness of spirit is involved in MARY'S DECISION to get pregnant. The Universal Roman Church and, subsequently, Protestant Catholics actually want mankind to believe in the pagan concept of the
Trinity
to further a pre-conceived agenda.
The title of "Holy Virgin" was the title of the harlot-priestesses of Ishtar (and) Asherah. It is this TITLE (not a pure form virgin reality) that was borrowed by the Greco-Roman church. The pagan title of "Holy Virgins" did not mean physical virginity at all; it meant simply "unmarried" (no husband). The function of these so called "Holy Virgins" was to dispense the Mother's (Ishtar's/Asterah's) grace through sexual worship; to heal; to prophesy; to perform sacred dances; to wail for the dead; and to become "Brides of god." The Hebrews called the children of these unmarried harlot priestesses "bathur", which meant literally "Virgin Born." The rest of the Hellenistic pagan world had no language equivalent to the bizarre rituals of Ishtar, and mistranslated and misunderstood the literal Hebrew's terminology of "bathur" as "parthenioi", also "virgin born" but in the sense of the physical (not spiritual) virginity
(James Still, Origins of the Virgin Birth Myth).
Only pagans believe that humans and gods or demigods have children from sex or a magical implantation of the seed of Abraham. This pagan concept is pure rubbish based on superstition and ignorance. Why would YaHoVeH pervert his own promise to Abraham with a scam or misrepresentation when He didn't need to. Joseph was right there and Mary was already his by promise. Would righteous YaHoVeH perform such an unrighteous act against both Mary and Joseph? Absolutely Not! Many people take the above verses to buttress their viewpoint that Mary was somehow "impregnated" by YaHoVeH to produce the child Yeshua. Let's consider this for a moment. If Mary was married when YaHoVeH "impregnated" her, He would have committed adultery, which is a violation of the eighth commandment. Similarly, if she was only engaged/betrothed when YaHoVeH "impregnated" her, then He would have also committed adultery. Needless to say, YaHoVeH will NEVER commit adultery - or break any other of His own Commandments! YaHoVeH cannot deny His Nature nor ever does anything to his disciples, prophets, teachers, servants, etc. without first asking for their permission to do it - how much more so in the case of "impregnating" someone? YaHoVeH simply does not force Himself upon people! The Messianic Writings (NT) clearly state that Yeshua was
"born under the law",
which is an unshakable indication that Yeshua was NOT conceived through either fornication or adultery.
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the Virgin Birth - a discussion
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"...which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the holy scriptures concerning His Son, who was descended from David
according to the flesh
and was declared to be the Son of YaHoVeH in power according to the holiness of spirit by his resurrection from the dead, Yeshua haMashiach." Romans 1:2-4
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the Birth Series
Part One: the Magi
Part Two: the Virgin Birth
Part Three: the Birth - Revisited
Part Four: Unequally Yoked
Part Five: the Origin of Christmas
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???Questions???
Please feel free to email me at harold@hethathasanear.com.
While not claiming to have all
the answers, it would be an honor to partake with you of what Spirit is uncovering.
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